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[2016-NEW!] Testing PassLeader 200-101 Exam Questions and Answers To 100% Pass 200-101 Exam (Question 1 – Question 20)

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Refer to the exhibit. At the end of an RSTP election process, which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?

A.    Switch3, port fa0/1
B.    Switch3, port fa0/12
C.    Switch4, port fa0/11
D.    Switch4, port fa0/2
E.    Switch3, port Gi0/1
F.    Switch3, port Gi0/2

Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?

A.    It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B.    It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C.    It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D.    It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.

Answer: D

Refer to the exhibit. Which switch provides the spanning-tree designated port role for the network segment that services the printers?

A.    Switch1
B.    Switch2
C.    Switch3
D.    Switch4

Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the reasons that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?

A.    This switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
B.    This switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
C.    This switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
D.    This switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.

Answer: C

Which two of these statements regarding RSTP are correct? (Choose two.)

A.    RSTP cannot operate with PVST+.
B.    RSTP defines new port roles.
C.    RSTP defines no new port states.
D.    RSTP is a proprietary implementation of IEEE 802.1D STP.
E.    RSTP is compatible with the original IEEE 802.1D STP.

Answer: BE

Which port state is introduced by Rapid-PVST?

A.    learning
B.    listening
C.    discarding
D.    forwarding

Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)

A.    SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B.    SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C.    SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D.    SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E.    SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F.    SwitchD, Gi0/2, root

Answer: ABF

Which two states are the port states when RSTP has converged? (Choose two.)

A.    discarding
B.    listening
C.    learning
D.    forwarding
E.    disabled

Answer: AD

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A.    RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.
B.    RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.
C.    RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.
D.    RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.
E.    RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.
F.    RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Answer: ABD

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A.    physical
B.    data link
C.    network
D.    transport

Answer: B

What is one benefit of PVST+?

A.    PVST+ supports Layer 3 load balancing without loops.
B.    PVST+ reduces the CPU cycles for all the switches in the network.
C.    PVST+ allows the root switch location to be optimized per VLAN.
D.    PVST+ automatically selects the root bridge location, to provide optimized bandwidth usage.

Answer: C

What are three characteristics of the OSPF routing protocol? (Choose three.)

A.    It converges quickly.
B.    OSPF is a classful routing protocol.
C.    It uses cost to determine the best route.
D.    It uses the DUAL algorithm to determine the best route.
E.    OSPF routers send the complete routing table to all directly attached routers.
F.    OSPF routers discover neighbors before exchanging routing information.

Answer: ACF

Which statement is true, as relates to classful or classless routing?

A.    Classful routing protocols send the subnet mask in routing updates.
B.    RIPv1 and OSPF are classless routing protocols.
C.    Automatic summarization at classful boundaries can cause problems on discontiguous subnets.
D.    EIGRP and OSPF are classful routing protocols and summarize routes by default.

Answer: C

Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?

A.    Bandwidth
B.    Bandwidth and Delay
C.    Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D.    Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load

Answer: A

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A.    A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.
B.    Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.
C.    Successor routes are flagged as ‘active’ in the routing table.
D.    A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.
E.    Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Answer: AD

Refer to the exhibit. The network associate is configuring OSPF on the Core router. All the connections to the branches should be participating in OSPF. The link to the ISP should NOT participate in OSPF and should only be advertised as the default route. What set of commands will properly configure the Core router?

A.    Core(config-router)# default-information originate
Core(config-router)# network area 0
Core(config-router)# exit
Core(config)# ip route
B.    Core(config-router)# default-information originate
Core(config-router)# network area 0
Core(config-router)# exit
Core(config)# ip route
C.    Core(config-router)# default-information originate
Core(config-router)# network area 0
Core(config-router)# exit
Core(config)# ip route
D.    Core(config-router)# default-information originate
Core(config-router)# network area 0
Core(config-router)# exit
Core(config)# ip route

Answer: C

Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose two.)

A.    It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B.    It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C.    It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be
D.    It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E.    It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.

Answer: BC

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A.    2
B.    4
C.    16
D.    unlimited

Answer: B

Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?

A.    hop count
B.    administrative distance
C.    link bandwidth
D.    link delay
E.    link cost

Answer: B

What are two drawbacks of implementing a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)

A.    the sequencing and acknowledgment of link-state packets
B.    the requirement for a hierarchical IP addressing scheme for optimal functionality
C.    the high volume of link-state advertisements in a converged network
D.    the high demand on router resources to run the link-state routing algorithm
E.    the large size of the topology table listing all advertised routes in the converged network

Answer: BD

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